Following on from a few recent posts about rep ranges/full body vs split/hypetrophy by other members, I would like to hear your opinion on this subject.
Two identical twins, Alex and Bob, decide to start weight training and monitoring their diet/bodyfat. They start at exactly the same age, height, bodyfat and LBM. Both lead a happy life and have no external restrictions towards their training.
Alex decides to adopt a powerlifting/olympic weight lifting routine, with relatively low repetitions (1-5 reps), compound exercises only (squat, deadlift, bench, pullups, snatch, clean & jerk etc.), with of course the addition of weight cycling/periodisation (Week 1 60% of XRM, Week 2 70% of XRM etc.) His aim is to achieve a new Personal Record on one (or more) of his lifts every few weeks or months, hence his volume is fairly low to preserve energy.
Bob decides to adopt a typical 4 day bodybuilding split (back, chest, legs, arms & shoulders), with medium repetitions (8-12) and high volume (10+ sets), compound and isolation exercises and no purposeful periodisation. His aim is to achieve maximum intensity in his sessions.
2 years later, Alex and Bob, both at the same bodyfat %, go through a series of tests of their 1RM, 5RM and 10RM on all major exercises (squat, deadlift, bench, pullup, dips etc.). They both achieve EXACTLY the same weight lifted.
So, onto the question....Which do you believe would be true?
Select A), B) or C)
A)Alex will be "smaller" and "less-defined" than Bob due to following a strength specific program (high neuromuscular adaptation) as opposed to Bob's hypertrophy training.
B)Alex will be "larger" and "more-defined" than Bob as his muscles will have developed greater density than Bob's
C)Alex and Bob will be the same size and definition as it is fairly irrelevant what style of training they used, they can both lift the same maximum weight and with identical genetics, they should both carry the same amount of muscle.
Your thoughts?
P.S. I'm with C)
